Indeed inflating base money while actual money supply does not follow due to tepid private debt increases does causes financial asset “inflation” and inequality due to financial gains being concentrated in the top incomes. As for “the USD lost 90% of it’s value since 1964”, are you implying that real purchasing power of workers would be 90% higher today than it is if there had not been inflation (i.e. if there had been, say, 0% inflation, for example, and no money base growth)? Not sure I get why the change in the nominal value of the currency matters all that much.